[sword-devel] KJV2003 Questions
Troy A. Griffitts
Mon, 25 Nov 2002 20:15:01 -0700
> The guideline say to place definite and indefinte articles with the
> noun. Do we split the noun tag if there is an adjective in between the
> article and the noun, eg, the whole world?
Yes, that sounds correct.
> What do we do if two Greek words are translated by a single English
> word? The verse in question is 1 John 1:5. The TR "epaggelia aggelia"
> which I think both belong to "message."
This was a bug in 1John1:5. We had all variants turned on in the TR
Greek text. Now, per Maurice Robinson's advice, we're following the
Scrivener variants. You should only see ??????? (AGGELIA) now.
BUT. if there were, just use the most base greek word for the phase and
leave the other tags empty but positioned next to it.
Like these, I'm sure there will be a few more things that don't fit
easily in our mold. We'll be sure to run a few programmatic checks when
it's all done and flag some verses for review. Some things already on
any verses with notes
any verses with empty tags other than articles