[sword-devel] kjv2003: two splits needed?
Sat, 14 Dec 2002 11:54:30 +0200 (EET)
On Fri, 13 Dec 2002, Keith Ralston wrote:
> You should read up on the uses and origins of the article in Greek. Dana
> and Mantey have a nice brief description. Robertson and Moulton have quite
> a bit more to say.
I try to read some Moulton one of these days. Until then it would be
good to have some more examples about tagging. When to tag like Troy
tagged here and when not to tag the article? Is it just about English
And to continue our endless conversation: NKJV translates Acts 2:16 as
"this is what was spoken". Here "what was spoken" can clearly be
"eirhmenon" and there is no relative pronoun. Just like in Rev 1:9. Is
it really possible that the translators of KJV and NKJV had different
views about usage of the article? Or did the translators of KJV choose
an English idiom which NKJV translators changed to a more neutral? Or do
I get English wrong here?
> > On Wed, 11 Dec 2002, Troy A. Griffitts wrote:
> > > ???? ????? ????? ?? ?????????...
> > > ALLA TOUTO ESTIN TO EIRHMENON...
> > > >But< ALLA
> > > >this< TOUTO
> > > >is< ESTIN
> > > >that< TO
> > > >which_was_spoken< EIRHMENON
> > >
> > > Let me know if you'd tag it differently.
Eeli Kaikkonen <firstname.lastname@example.org> Suomi Finland